Which Of The Following Drugs Is Useful To Treat Cancer Of The Central Nervous System In Animals

one. A-50-twelvemonth-old human has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with highcalcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is
(A) Mannitol
(B) Furosemide
(C) Spironolactone
(D) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Acetazolamide

2. Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its site of activity and maximal diuretic efficacy?
(A) Thiazides–distal convoluted tubute–10% of filtered Na+
(B) Spironolactone–proximal convoluted tubule –forty%
(C) Bumetanide–thick ascending limb–15%
(D) Metolazone–collecting tubule–two%
(Due east) All of the higher up

three. Substance secreted into the blood by a neuron is
(A) Neurohormone
(B) Neuromodulator
(C) Neuromediator
(D) Neurotransmitter

4. Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker?
(A) Alprostadil
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) LTC4
(E) Zafirlukast

5. A molecule that stimulates nitric oxide synthase, especially the eNOS isoform, is
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Citruline
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Nitroglycerin
(Eastward) Nitroprusside

6. The principal endogenous substrate for nitric oxide synthase is
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Angiotensinogen
(C) Arginine
(D) Citruline
(E) Heme

7. Which of the following is a recognized effect of nitric oxide?
(A) Arrhythmia
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Constipation
(D) Inhibition of astute graft rejection
(East) Pulmonary vasodilation

8. cAMP is an example of
(A) Neurohormone
(B) Neuromodulator
(C) Neuromediator
(D) Neurotransmitter

9. One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine take in common is
(A) Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile strength
(B) Tachycardia
(C) Increased gastric acid secretion
(D) Postural hypotension
(E) Throbbing headache

10. Which 1 of the following chemicals does not satisfy the criteria for a neurotransmitter function in the CNS?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Glycine
(D) Nitric Oxide
(E) Substance P

11. Neurotransmitters may
(A) Increase chloride conductance to crusade inhibition
(B) Increment potassium conductance to cause excitation
(C) Increse sodium conductance to cause inhibition
(D) Increase calcium conductance to cause inhibition
(East) Exert all of the above actions

12. Which of the following chemicals is most likely to function as a neurotransmitter in hierarchical systems?
(A) Dopamine
(B) Glutamate
(C) Metenkephalin
(D) Norepinephrine
(E) Serotonin

13. Activation of metabotropic receptors located presynaptically causes inhibition past decreasing the inward flux of
(A) Calcium
(B) Chloride
(C) Potassium
(D) Sodium
(E) None of the above

14. This compound decrease the functional activities of several CNS neurotransmitters, including dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. At high doses it may crusade parkinsonism-like extrapyramidal organization dysfunction.
(A) Amphetamine
(B) Baclofen
(C) Diazepam
(D) Ketamine
(Due east) Reserpine

15. This amine neurotransmitter is institute in loftier concentration in jail cell bodies in the pons and brain stem; at some sites, release of transmitter is autoregulated via presynaptic inhibition.
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Glutamate
(D) Norepinephrine
(E) Substance P

16. Suramin is an antagonists of ________ receptors
(A) Purine
(B) Somatostanin
(C) Neuropeptide Y
(D) Neurotensin

17. Which one of the following statements all-time describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
(A) Benzodiazepines activate GABAB receptors in the spinal cord
(B) Their inhibition of GABA transminase leads to increased levels of GABA
(C) Benzodiazepines block glutamate receptors in hierarchical neuronal pathways in the encephalon
(D) They increment the frequency of opening of chloride ion channels that are coupled to GABAA receptors
(E) They are directly-acting GABA receptor agonists in the CNS

eighteen. Which one of the following statements most the use of triazolam in this elderly patient is accurate?
(A) Convalescent dysfunction does not occur in elderly patients taking one-half of the conventional adult dose
(B) Hypertension is a mutual adverse furnishings of benzodiazepines in patients over 70 years of age
(C) Over-the-counter cold medications may antagonize the hypnotic effects of the drug
(D) She may feel amnesia, especially if she also drinks alcoholic beverages
(Eastward) Triazolam is distinctive in that it does not cause rebound insomnia on sharp discontinuance

19. The most likely explanation for the increased sensitivity of elderly patients to a single dose of triazolam and other sedative-hypnotic drugs is
(A) Changes in brain role that accompany the aging procedure
(B) Decreased renal function
(C) Increased cerebral blood flow
(D) Decreased hepatic metabolism of lipidsoluble drugs
(East) Changes in plasma protein binding

20. Consecration of diverse forms of synaptic plasticity is more closely associated with ______ receptors
(A) AMPA
(B) Kainate
(C) NMDA
(D) All of the above

21. Which one of the following drugs may increment anticoagulant effects by displacement of warfarin from plasma poly peptide binding sites and is inactive until converted in the torso to an active metabolite?
(A) Buspirone
(B) Chloral hydrate
(C) Clorazepate
(D) Secobarbital
(East) Zaleplon

22. Which one of the following drugs has been used in the management of alcohol withdrawal states and in maintenance treatment of patient with tonic-clonic or partial seizure states? Its chronic use may atomic number 82 to an increased metabolism of warfarin and phenytoin.
(A) Chlordiazepoxide
(B) Meprobamate
(C) Phenobarbital
(D) Triazolam
(E) Zolpidem

23. A twoscore-twelvemonth-old patient with liver dysfunction is scheduled for a surgical process. Lorazepam can be used for preanesthetic sedation in this patient without business organisation for excessive CNS depression because the drug is
(A) A selective anxiolytic like buspirone
(B) Actively secreted in the renal proximal tubule
(C) Conjugated extrahepatically
(D) Eliminated via the lungs
(E) Reversible by assistants of naloxone

24. This hypnotic drug facilitates the inhibitory actions of GABA, merely it lacks anticonvulsant or musculus relaxing properties and has minimal effect on sleep architecture.
(A) Buspirone
(B) Diazepam
(C) Flurazepam
(D) Phenobarbital
(E) Zaleplon

25. The most frequent blazon of drug interaction that occurs in patients using drugs of the sedative hypnotic class is
(A) Additive CNS depression
(B) Antagonism of allaying or hypnotic actions
(C) Competition for plasma protein binding
(D) Induction of liver drug-metabolizing enzymes
(E) Inhibition of liver drug-metabolizing enzymes

26. A 42-twelvemonth-sometime man with a history of alcoholism is brought to the emergency room in a confused and delirious state. He has truncal clutter and ophthalmoplegia.
The nearly appropriate immediate course of activeness is to administer.
(A) Chlordiazepoxide
(B) Disulfiram
(C) Folic acid
(D) Lorazepam
(E) Thiamine

27. Which one of the following statements about the bio-disposition of ethanol is accurate?
(A) Ethanol is captivated at all levels of the gastrointestinal tract
(B) Acetic acid is the initial product of ethanol metabolism
(C) After an intravenous dose, plasma levels of ethanol are lower in women than in men
(D) The elimination of ethanol follows first-lodge kinetics
(E) Alcohol dehydrogenase exhibits genetic variability

28. Following is GABAA agonist
(A) Muscimol
(B) Baclofen
(C) Bicuculline
(D) None of the above

29. Chronic use of ethanol is reported to increase
(A) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(B) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
(C) Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system action
(D) Monoamine oxidase
(East) NADH dehydrogenase

thirty. The chronic abuse of alcohol predisposes to hepatic damage post-obit overdose of acetaminophen because ethanol
(A) Blocks acetaminophen metabolism
(B) Causes thiamine deficiency
(C) Displaces acetaminophen from plasma proteins
(D) Induces liver drug-metabolizing enzymes
(E) Inhibits renal clearance of acetaminophen

31. The activity of this enzyme is specifically decreased in the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
(A) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(B) Cytochrome P450
(C) L-Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
(D) NADH dehydrogenase
(Due east) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

32. Following is glycine antagonists
(A) Quisqualate
(B) Taurine
(C) Strychnine
(D) â-alanine

33. Which one of the following statements concerning the pharmacokinetics of antiseizure drugs is accurate?
(A) At high doses, phenytoin elimination follows showtime-society kinetics
(B) Valporic acid may increase the activity of hepatic ALA synthase and the synthesis of porphyrins
(C) The assistants of phenytoin to patients in methadone maintenance programs has led to symptoms of opioid overdose, including respiratory low
(D) Although ethosuximide has a one-half-life of approximately 40 hours, the drug is commonly taken twice a day
(E) Treatment with vigabatrin may reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives

34. With chronic employ in seizure states, the adverse effects of this drug include coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia, and osteomalacia.
(A) Carbamazepine
(B) Ethosuximide
(C) Gabapentin
(D) Phenytoin
(Due east) Valproic acid

35. Which 1 of the following statements about vigabatrin is accurate?
(A) Blocks neuronal reuptake of GABA
(B) Drug of choice in absence seizures
(C) Is established to exist teratogenic in humans
(D) Life-threatening skin disorders may occur
(East) Visual field defects occur in up to one-third of patients

36. Withdrawal of antiseizure drugs can crusade increased seizure frequency and severity. Withdrawal is least likely to be a trouble with
(A) Clonazepam
(B) Diazepam
(C) Ethosuximide
(D) Phenobarbital
(E) Phenytoin

37. A young femal patient who suffers from bipolar affective disorder (BAD) has been managed with lithium. If she becomes meaning, which ane of the following drugs is likely to be effective in bipolar affective disorder with minimal take chances of teratogenicity?
(A) Carbamazepine
(B) Clonazepam
(C) Phenytoin
(D) Valproic acid
(E) None of the above

38. The most likely mechanism involved in the antiseizure activeness of carbamazepine is
(A) Block of sodium ion channels
(B) Block of calcium ion channels
(C) Facilitation of GABA deportment on chloride ion channels
(D) Glutamate receptor antagonism
(E) Inhibition of GABA transaminase

39. Which one of the following statements nearly phenytoin is accurate?
(A) Displaces sulfonamides from plasma proteins
(B) Drug of choice in myoclonic seizures
(C) One-half-life is increased if used with phenobarbital
(D) Isoniazid (INH) decreases steady state claret levels of phenytoin
(E) Toxicity may occur with only small increments in dose

forty. Which one of the following statements concerning nitrous oxide is accurate?
(A) Information technology continues to exist a useful component of anesthesia protocols because of its lack of cardiovascular depression
(B) Megaloblastic anemia is a common agin upshot in patients exposed to nitrous oxide for periods longer than 2 hours
(C) Information technology is the near potent of the inhaled anaesthetics
(D) There is a direct association betwixt the use of nitrous oxide and malignant hyperthermia
(E) More than than 30% of nitrous oxide is eliminated via hepatic metabolism

41. Following is GABAB agonist
(A) Muscimol
(B) Baclofen
(C) Picrotoxin
(D) Bicuculline

42. Following is GABAA antagonist
(A) Muscimol
(B) Bicuculline
(C) Strychnine
(D) Baclofen

43. The inhalation coldhearted with the fastest onset of activity is
(A) Enflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Nitric oxide
(D) Nitrogen dioxide
(E) Nitrous oxide

44. An intravenous bolus dose of thiopental usually leads to loss of onsciousness within ten–xv seconds. If no further drugs are administered, the patient volition regain consciousness in simply a few minutes. The reason for this, that thiopental is
(A) A adept substrate for renal tubular secretion
(B) Exhaled chop-chop
(C) Quickly metabolized by hepatic enzymes
(D) Redistributed from brain to other body tissues
(E) Secreted in the bile

45. Respiratory depression post-obit use of this agent may be reversed by administration of flumazenil
(A) Desflurane
(B) Fentanyl
(C) Ketamine
(D) Midazolam
(Eastward) Propofol

46. Use of this agent is associated with a loftier incidence of disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams during recovery from anesthesia
(A) Diazepam
(B) Fentanyl
(C) Ketamine
(D) Midazolam
(Eastward) Thiopental

47. Postoperative vomiting is uncommon with this intravenous agent; patients are able to ambulate sooner than those who receive other anaesthetics
(A) Enflurane
(B) Ketamine
(C) Morphine
(D) Propofol
(E) Remifentanil

48. The pKa of lidocaine is vii.9. In infected tissue at pH half-dozen.9, the fraction in the ionized course will be
(A) i%
(B) 10%
(C) 50%
(D) xc%
(E) 99%

49. Which of the following statements near nerve blockade with local anaesthetics is nigh right?
(A) Cake is faster in onset in infected tissues
(B) Block is faster in onset in unmyelinated fibers
(C) Cake is slower in onset in hypocalcemia
(D) Block is faster in onset in hyperkalemia
(Eastward) Block is slower in onset in the periphery of a nerve parcel than in the center of a bundle

50. Which of the post-obit was the first chemical compound to be identified Pharmacologically as a transmitter in the CNS ?
(A) Glycine
(B) Glutamate
(C) Acetulcholine
(D) Norepinephrine

51. You have a vial containing four mL of a 2% solution of lidocaine. How much lidocaine is present in 1 mL?
(A) 2 mg
(B) eight mg
(C) 20 mg
(D) 80 mg
(E) 200 mg

52. Which one of the post-obit statements about the toxicity of local anaesthetics is virtually correct?
(A) Serious cardiovascular reactions are more likely to occur with tetracaine than with bupivacaine
(B) Cyanosis may occur following injection of large doses of lidocaine, particularly in patients with pulmonary affliction
(C) Intravenous injection of local anaesthetics may stimulate ectopic cardiac pacemaker activity
(D) In overdosage, hyperventilation (with oxygen) is helpful to correct acidosis and lower extracellular potassium
(E) About local anaesthetics cause vasoconstriction

53. Epinephrine added to a solution of lidocaine for a peripheral nerve cake will
(A) Increment the risk of convulsions
(B) Increment the elapsing of coldhearted activity of the local anesthetic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(East) None of the in a higher place

54. A child requires multiple minor surgical procedures in the nasopharynx. Which of the following drugs has high surface activity and vasoconstrictor deportment that reduce haemorrhage in mucous membrane?
(A) Benzocaine
(B) Bupivacaine
(C) Cocaine
(D) Lidocaine
(East) Procaine

55. Characteristics of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade include which one of the following?
(A) Block of posttetanic potentiation
(B) Histamine blocking action
(C) Poorly sustained titanic tension
(D) Meaning musculus fasciculations during onset of block
(E) Stimulation of autonomic ganglia

56. Which of the following does not cause skeletal musculus contactions or twitching?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Nicotine
(C) Strychnine
(D) Succinylcholine
(E) Vecuronium

57. Which one of the following is nigh effective in the management of malignant hyperthermia?
(A) Baclofen
(B) Dantrolene
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Succinylcholine
(Eastward) Vecuronium

58. Following is a Thou-protein coupled receptor
(A) AMPA
(B) Kainate
(C) NMDA
(D) Metabotropic

59. Which one of the following drugs is almost oftentimes associated with hypotension caused by histamine release?
(A) Diazepam
(B) Pancuronium
(C) Tizanidine
(D) Tubocurarine
(Eastward) Vecuronium

60. Which one of the post-obit drugs has acquired hyperkalemia leading to cardiac arrest in patients with neurologic disorders?
(A) Baclofen
(B) Dantrolene
(C) Succinylcholine
(D) Tubocurarine
(E) Vecuronium

61. Following is an excitatory amino acid receptor antagonist?
(A) Phencyclidine
(B) Quisqualate
(C) Homocysteate
(D) Kainate

62. Which one of the post-obit drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also exist used in the management of seizures caused past overdose of a local anesthetic?
(A) Baclofen
(B) Cyclobenzaprine
(C) Dantrolene
(D) Diazepam
(E) Tizanidine

63. Which one of the following drugs given preoperatively volition foreclose postoperative pain caused by succinylcholine?
(A) Baclofen
(B) Dantrolene
(C) Diazepam
(D) Lidocaine
(Eastward) Tubocurarine

64. Equally the dr., you lot could tell the patient (and close family unit members) all of the following things about levodopa except?
(A) Taking the drug in divided doses will decrease nausea and airsickness
(B) He should be careful when he stands up because he may get giddy
(C) Uncontrollable muscle jerks may occur
(D) A net-like reddish to blue discoloration of the skin is a likely side effect of the medication
(E) The drug volition probably better his symptoms for a period of time but non indefinitely

65. As the physician who is prescribing levodopa, you lot will notation that the drug
(A) Causes less severe behavioral side furnishings if given with carbidopa
(B) Fluctuates in its effectiveness with increasing frequency as treatment continues
(C) Prevents extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotic drugs
(D) Protects against cancer in patients with melanoma
(E) Has toxic effects that include pulmonary infiltrates

66. The major reason why carbidopa is of value in parkinsonism is that the compound
(A) Crosses the blood-brain barrier
(B) Inhibits monoamine oxidase type A
(C) Inhibits aromatic L-amino acrid decarboxylase
(D) Is converted to the fake neurotransmitter carbidopamine
(E) Inhibits monoamine oxidase type B

67. Which one of the following statements about bromocriptine is accurate?
(A) It should non exist administered to patients taking antimuscarinic drugs
(B) Effectiveness in Parkinson'south disease requires its metabolic conversion to an agile metabolite
(C) The drug is contraindicated in patients with a history of psychosis
(D) The drug should not be administered to patients already taking levodopa
(E) Mental disturbances occur more than commonly with levodopa than with bromocriptine

68. A 72-twelvemonth-erstwhile patient with parkinsonism presents with swollen feet. They are red, tender, and very painful. Y'all could clear upwardly these symptoms within a few days if you told the patient to cease taking
(A) Amantadine
(B) Benztropine
(C) Bromocriptine
(D) Levodopa
(E) Selegiline

69. Concerning the drugs used in parkinsonism, which of the following statements is accurate?
(A) Levodopa causes mydriasis and tin can precipitate an assail of astute glaucoma
(B) Useful therapeutic effects of amantadine continue for several years
(C) The primary therapeutic benefit of antimuscarinic drugs in parkinsonism is their ability to reliever bradykinesia
(D) Dopamine receptor against should not be used in Parkinson's affliction prior to a trial of levodopa
(E) The concomitant utilize of selegiline may increment the peripheral adverse effects of levodopa

70. A previously healthy 50-yr-old adult female begins to endure from slowed mentation and develops writhing move of her tongue and easily. In addition, she has delusions of being persecuted. The woman has no past history of psychiatric or neurologic disorders. The most appropriate drug for handling is
(A) Amantadine
(B) Bromocriptine
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Levodopa
(Due east) Trihexyphenidyl

71. Neat caution must exist exercised in the use of this drug (or drugs from the same form) in parkinsonian patients who have prostatic hypertrophy or obstructive gastrointestinal disease
(A) Benztropine
(B) Carbidopa
(C) Levodopa
(D) Ropinirole
(East) Selegiline

72. Which of the following statements nearly pramipexole is authentic?
(A) Activates dopamine D2 receptors
(B) Ordinarily a get-go-line therapy for Parkinson's disease
(C) May cause postural hypotension
(D) Not an ergot derivative
(E) All of the above

73. Tolcapone may be of value in patient being treated with levodopa–carbidopa because information technology
(A) Activates catechol – O – methyltransferease
(B) Decreases formation of 3 – O – methyldopa
(C) Inhibits monoamine oxidase type B
(D) Inhibits dopamine reuptake
(E) Releases dopamine from nerve endings

74. Concerning hypotheses for the pathophysiologic basis of schizophrenia, which one of the following statements is accurate?
(A) Positron emission tomography has shown decreased dopamine receptors in the brains of both untreated and drug-treated schizophrenics
(B) Drugs that cake dopamine receptors are useful for alleviating psychotic symptoms in parkinsoniam patients
(C) The clinical potency of many antipsychotic drugs correlates well with their beta adrenoceptor-blocking actions
(D) Drug-induced psychosis tin occur without activation of brain dopamine receptors
(Due east) All effective antipsychotic drugs have high affinity for dopamine D2 receptors

75. Choose the correct statement from the following?
(A) Muscimol is GABAB selective
(B) Bicuculline is GABAA agonist
(C) Picrotoxin blocks chloride channels associated with GABAA receptors
(D) Baclofen is GABAA agonist

76. A xxx-year-old male patient is on drug therapy for a psychiatric problem. He complains that he feels "flat" and that he gets dislocated at times. He has been gaining weight and has lost his sex drive. Every bit he moves his had, you lot find a slight tremor. He tells you that since he has been on medication he is always thirsty and frequently has to urinate. The drug he is most likely to be taking is
(A) Clonazepam
(B) Clozapine
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Lithium
(E) Trifluoperazine

77. A young male patient diagnosed as schizophrenic develops severe muscle cramps with torticollis a short time after drug therapy is intiated with haloperidol. The all-time grade of action would be to
(A) Add clozapine to the drug regimen
(B) Discontinue haloperidol and observe the patient
(C) Give oral diphenydramine
(D) Switch the patient to fluphenazine
(Eastward) Inject benztropine

78. Which one of the following statements about the action of phenothiazines is accurate?
(A) They activate muscarinic receptors
(B) They are antiemetic
(C) They subtract serum prolactin levels
(D) They elevate the seizure threshold
(E) They enhance blood pressure

79. Within days of starting haloperidol treatment for a psychatric disorder, a young male patient developed severe generalized muscle rigidity and a high fever. In the emergency room he was incoherent, with increased middle rate, hypotension, and diaphoresis, Laboratory studies indicated acidosis, leukocytosis, and increased creatine kinase. The most likely reason for these symptoms is that the patient was suffering from
(A) Agranulocytosis
(B) A severe bacterial infection
(C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(D) Spastic retrocollis
(E) Tardive dyskinesia

fourscore. Following is the main inhibitory transmitter in the encephalon
(A) Dopamine
(B) Norepinephrine
(C) Glycine
(D) GABA

81. Concerning the proposed mechanisms of action of antidepressant drugs, which i of the post-obit statements is authentic?
(A) Bupropion is an effective inhibitor of NE and v-HT transporters
(B) Chronic handling with an antidepressant oft leads to the up-regulation of adrenoceptors
(C) Height in amine metabolites in cerebrospinal fluid is feature of most depressed patients prior to drug therapy
(D) MAO inhibitors used every bit antidepressants selectively subtract the metabolism of norepinephrine
(E) The astute effect of most tricyclics is to block the neuronal reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin in the CNS

82. Which one of the following effects is unlikely to occur during treatment with amitriptyline?
(A) Alpha adrenoceptor blockade
(B) Elevation of the seizure threshold
(C) Mydriasis
(D) Sedation
(E) Urinary retention

83. A 54-twelvemonth-sometime male person patient was using fluoxetine for depression but decided to stop taking the drug. When questioned, he said that it affected his sexual performance and that "he wasn't getting whatsoever younger." Y'all observe that he is a used of tobacco products. If y'all decide to reinstitute drug therapy in this patient, the best option would be
(A) Amoxapine
(B) Bupropion
(C) Imipramine
(D) Sertraline
(E) Venlafaxine

84. Regarding maprotiline, which one of the following statements is accurate?
(A) Blocks serotonin reuptake selectively
(B) Cause hypertension
(C) Raises the seizure threshold
(D) Sedation occurs normally
(E) Has a tricyclic construction

85. Which one of the post-obit drugs is near likely to be of value in obsessive compulsive disorders (OCD)?
(A) Amitriptyline
(B) Bupropion
(C) Clomipramine
(D) Desipramine
(E) Mirtazapine

86. Compared with other antidepressant drugs, mirtazapine has the distinctive ability to act as an antagonist of
(A) Alpha2 adrenoceptors
(B) Beta adrenoceptors
(C) D2 receptors
(D) NE transporters
(E) 5-HT transporters

87. Established clinical uses of this drug include enuresis and chronic pain
(A) Bupropion
(B) Fluvoxamine
(C) Imipramine
(D) Phenelzine
(E) Selegiline

88. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to increase plasma levels of alprazolam, the ophyline, and warfarin
(A) Desipramine
(B) Fluvoxamine
(C) Imipramine
(D) Nefazodone
(Due east) Venlafaxine

89. Which one of the following actions of opioid analgesics is mediated via activation of kappa receptors?
(A) Cerebral Vascular dilation
(B) Decreased uterine tone
(C) Euphoria
(D) Sedation
(E) Psychologic dependence

ninety. ______ antagonists are known to attenuate some of the actions of alcohol.
(A) GABAA
(B) GABAB
(C) NMDA
(D) Glycine

91. Which one of the following statements about propoxyphene is accurate?
(A) Analgesia equivalent to oxycodone
(B) Antagonist at mu receptors
(C) Causes dose-limiting diarrhea
(D) Highly effective cough suppressant
(E) Seizures have occurred in overdose

92. A immature male patient is brought to the emergency room of a hospital suffering from an overdose of cocaine following intravenous administration. His symptoms are unlikely to include
(A) Agitation
(B) Bradycardia
(C) Hyperthermia
(D) Myocardial infarct
(E) Seizures

93. Which ane of the following statements about hallucinogens is accurate?
(A) Mescaline and related hallucinogens are thought to exert their CNS actions through dopaminergic systems in the encephalon
(B) Teratogenic effects are known to occur with the utilize of LSD during pregnancy
(C) Scopolamine is unique among hallucinogens in that animals will self-administrate it
(D) Dilated pupils, tachycardia, tremor and increased alacrity are characteristic effects of psilocybin
(E) Phencyclidine tin can be anticipated to cause dry oral fissure and urinary retention

94. Which 1 of the following signs or symptoms is likely to occur with marijuana?
(A) Bradycardia
(B) Conjunctival reddening
(C) Hypertension
(D) Increased psychomotor performance
(E) Mydriasis

95. This agent has sedative and amnestic properties. Small doses added to alcoholic beverages are not readily detected by sense of taste and take been used in "engagement rape" attacks. The drug is chemically related to a brain inhibitory neurotransmitter. Which 1 of the following about closely resembles the description given?
(A) Amyl nitrite
(B) Flunitrazepam
(C) Gamma-hydroxybutyrate
(D) Hashish
(E) Metcathinone

96. The patient is started on gemfibrozil. The major machinery of activeness of gemfibrozil is
(A) Increased excretion of bile acid salts
(B) Increased expression of high-affinity LDL receptors
(C) Increased lipid hydrolysis past lipoprotein lipase
(D) Inhibition of secretion of VLDL by the liver
(E) Reduction of secretion of HDL by the liver

97. When used every bit monotherapy, a major toxicity of gemfibrozil is increased risk of
(A) Bloating and constipation
(B) Cholelithiasis
(C) Hyperuricemia
(D) Liver harm
(Due east) Severe cardiac arrhythmia

98. Alcohol drinking is associated with which of the post-obit changes in serum lipid concentrations?
(A) Decreased HDL cholesterol
(B) Decreased IDL cholesterol
(C) Decreased VLDL cholesterol
(D) Increased LDL cholesterol
(E) Increased triglyceride

99. A patient suffering from a depressive disorder is being treated with imipramine. If he uses diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis, a drug interaction is likely to occur because
(A) Diphehydramine inhibits imipramine metabolism
(B) Both drugs block reuptake of norepinephrine released from sympathetic nerve endings
(C) Imipramine inhibits the metabolism of diphenydramine
(D) Both drugs block muscarinic receptors
(E) The drugs compete with each other for renal emptying

100. If phenelzine is administered to a patient taking fluoxetine, the most probable result is
(A) Antagonism of the antidepressant activeness of fluoxetine
(B) A decrease in the plasma levels of fluoxetine
(C) Hypertensive crunch
(D) Priapism
(E) Agitation, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, seizures

Source: https://www.himpustak.com/2016/09/mcq-on-central-nervous-system-for-staff_23.html

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